UPSSSC PET Practice Test in English

UPSSSC PET Practice Mock Test in English for preparation of upcoming Uttar Pradesh (UP) Preliminary Exam Test 2024-2025. 100 Questions as per new syllabus and exam pattern.

UPSSSC PET Practice Test in English

Indian History

Q-1 : Which of the following cities was NOT part of the Indus Valley Civilization?

A) Harappa
B) Mohenjo-Daro
C) Lothal
D) Varanasi

Answer

Answer: D) Varanasi
Explanation: Varanasi (also known as Benares) was not part of the Indus Valley Civilization. It is an ancient city with its own history, but the Indus Valley Civilization primarily included cities like Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro, and Lothal.

Q-2: What was the primary language in which the Vedic texts were composed?

A) Sanskrit
B) Pali
C) Prakrit
D) Tamil

Answer

Answer: A) Sanskrit
Explanation: The Vedic texts were composed in an early form of Sanskrit, which is a classical language of India. Sanskrit was the language of the Vedas, as well as other important religious and philosophical texts of the Vedic period.

Q-3 : How did British rule impact the social structure in India?

A) Promoted equality and reduced caste discrimination
B) Introduced reforms that weakened the caste system
C) Strengthened and reinforced existing caste divisions
D) Created a more unified social structure

Answer

Answer: C) Strengthened and reinforced existing caste divisions
Explanation: British rule often reinforced the existing caste system through various administrative and social policies, making caste divisions more rigid and entrenched, rather than reducing them.

Q-4: What was a significant architectural contribution of the Delhi Sultanate period?

A) The Red Fort
B) The Qutub Minar
C) The Taj Mahal
D) The Hawa Mahal

Answer

Answer: B) The Qutub Minar
Explanation: The Qutub Minar, built during the Delhi Sultanate period, is a significant architectural contribution from that time. The Red Fort and Taj Mahal are Mughal structures, while the Hawa Mahal is from the Rajput era.

Q- 5: Which of the following was a Rajput kingdom during the Rajput Period?

A) Delhi Sultanate
B) Mewar
C) Mughal Empire
D) Chola Empire

Answer

Answer: B) Mewar
Explanation: Mewar was a prominent Rajput kingdom during the Rajput Period. The Delhi Sultanate, Mughal Empire, and Chola Empire were different political entities and not part of the Rajput Period.

Indian National Movement

Q-1: What was the main goal of the Indian National Army?

A) To support the British in World War II
B) To promote Indian cultural heritage
C) To fight for India’s independence from British rule
D) To expand Indian territories

Answer

Answer: C) To fight for India’s independence from British rule
Explanation: The primary goal of the Indian National Army was to fight for India’s independence from British rule. The INA, led by Subhas Chandra Bose, aimed to achieve this through military action and by aligning with Axis powers during World War II.

Q-2 : Which leader was primarily associated with the Quit India Movement?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Subhas Chandra Bose
D) Sardar Patel

Answer

Answer: B) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi was the primary leader associated with the Quit India Movement. He called for a mass struggle against British rule, and his leadership was central to the campaign. Jawaharlal Nehru, Subhas Chandra Bose, and Sardar Patel were also key figures in the independence movement but were not the main leaders of this particular movement.

Q-3: Which leader was particularly associated with the implementation of the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal?

A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B) Lala Lajpat Rai
C) Bipin Chandra Pal
D) Chittaranjan Das

Answer

Answer: D) Chittaranjan Das
Explanation: Chittaranjan Das was particularly associated with the implementation of the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal. He played a significant role in organizing and leading the movement in the region. Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, and Bipin Chandra Pal were also key leaders in the broader freedom struggle but were not specifically associated with the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal.

Q-4: Who was a key leader of the revolutionary movement known for his role in the Kakori Train Robbery?

A) Bhagat Singh
B) Chandra Shekhar Azad
C) Rajguru
D) Ram Prasad Bismil

Answer

Answer: D) Ram Prasad Bismil
Explanation: Ram Prasad Bismil was a key leader of the revolutionary movement and was prominently involved in the Kakori Train Robbery, which was aimed at securing funds for the revolutionary cause. Bhagat Singh, Chandra Shekhar Azad, and Rajguru were also important revolutionaries, but the Kakori Train Robbery was specifically associated with Bismil.

Q-5: Which legislative body was responsible for passing the Government of India Act, 1935?

A) The British Parliament
B) The Indian National Congress
C) The Provincial Legislatures
D) The Indian Round Table Conference

Answer

Answer: A) The British Parliament
Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1935, was passed by the British Parliament. The Indian National Congress and Provincial Legislatures were not responsible for its passage, although they had a role in discussing and commenting on its provisions. The Indian Round Table Conference was an earlier event where various proposals were discussed but did not pass the Act itself.

Geography

Q-1: Which of the following mountain ranges is the oldest?

A) Himalayas
B) Rockies
C) Andes
D) Aravalli

Answer

Answer: D) Aravalli
Explanation: The Aravalli Range is considered one of the oldest mountain ranges in India, dating back over 2.5 billion years. In comparison, the Himalayas, Rockies, and Andes are much younger geological formations.

Q-2 : Which is the largest delta in India?

A) Godavari Delta
B) Krishna Delta
C) Sundarbans Delta
D) Mahanadi Delta

Answer

Answer: C) Sundarbans Delta
Explanation: The Sundarbans Delta, formed by the confluence of the Ganges and Brahmaputra rivers, is the largest delta in India. It spans parts of West Bengal in India and Bangladesh. The Godavari Delta, Krishna Delta, and Mahanadi Delta are significant but not as extensive as the Sundarbans Delta.

Q-3 :What can be a consequence of excessive groundwater extraction?

A) Increased aquifer pressure
B) Improved water quality
C) Depletion of groundwater resources
D) Enhanced recharge rates

Answer

Answer: C) Depletion of groundwater resources
Explanation: Excessive groundwater extraction can lead to the depletion of groundwater resources, reducing the available supply and potentially leading to problems like reduced water levels and increased costs for extraction. It does not generally result in increased aquifer pressure, improved water quality, or enhanced recharge rates.

Q-4: Which desert is the largest hot desert in the world?

A) Kalahari Desert
B) Sahara Desert
C) Gobi Desert
D) Arabian Desert

Answer

Answer: B) Sahara Desert
Explanation: The Sahara Desert is the largest hot desert in the world, covering much of North Africa. The Kalahari, Gobi, and Arabian deserts are also significant but smaller compared to the Sahara.

Q-5. The forest in Sundarbans is also called?

(a) Scrub jungle
(b) Mangrove
(c) Deciduous forest
(d) None of these

Answer

Ans. (b) Mangrove
Explanation– The forest in Sundarbans is called Mangrove.

Indian Economy

Q-1 Who was the prime minister of India during the fourth 5-year plan?

A) Indira Gandhi
B) Narendra Modi
C) Manmohan Singh
D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Answer

Answer- A) Indira Gandhi
The fourth Five-Year Plan in India spanned from 1970 to 1975. During this period, Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India.

Q-2 : Who is the father of Green Revolution in the world?

(a Norman Borlaug
(b M. S. Swaminathan
c) William G. Levitt
d) Borlaug Norman

Answer

Answer: (a) Norman Borlaug
Explanation: Norman Borlaug is widely recognized as the father of the Green Revolution. He was a key figure in developing high-yielding varieties of staple crops, particularly wheat, which significantly increased food production and alleviated hunger in many developing countries.

Q-3 : Which organization launched Operation Flood?

(a) Food Corporation of India
(b) National Dairy Development Board
(c) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(d) Ministry of Agriculture

Answer

Answer-3 : National Dairy Development Board
Explanation: The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) was responsible for launching and managing Operation Flood.

Q-4 : When did the Indian government nationalize 14 major commercial banks?

(a) 1965
(b) 1969
(c) 1975
(d) 1980

Answer

Answer: (b) 1969
Explanation: The Indian government nationalized 14 major commercial banks on July 19, 1969, to increase government control and promote social banking.

Q-5 : When did GST come into effect in India?

(a) January 1, 2016
(b) July 1, 2017
(c) April 1, 2018
(d) October 1, 2015

Answer

Answer: (b) July 1, 2017
Explanation: GST was implemented in India on July 1, 2017, marking a major reform in the Indian taxation system.

Indian Constitution & Public Administration:

Q-1 : In which year was the Right to Information (RTI) Act passed in India?

(a) 2001
(b) 2002
(c) 2005
(d) 2008

Answer

Answer: (c) 2005
Explanation: The Right to Information Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2005. The Act was a significant step towards transparency and accountability in governance.

Q-2 :Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) Part I
(b) Part II
(c) Part III
(d) Part IV

Answer

Answer: (d) Part IV
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution.

Q-3 : Which state has the lowest number of seats in Lok Sabha?

(a) Sikkim
(b) Goa
(c) Mizoram
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer

Answer: a) Sikkim
Explanation: As of the latest distribution, Sikkim has the lowest number of seats in the Lok Sabha, which is the lower house of India’s Parliament. It is allocated just one seat.

Q-4 : What is the minimum age requirement for a candidate to contest elections for a Panchayat in India?

(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 30 years

Answer

Answer: (b) 21 years
Explanation: The minimum age requirement for a candidate to contest elections for a Panchayat is 21 years. This ensures that candidates have sufficient maturity and experience.

Q-5 : The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the:

(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Governor of the State

Answer

Answer: (a) President of India
Explanation: The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President of India based on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India.

General Science

Q-1 :Nuclear sizes are expressed in a unit named ?

a) Angstrom
(b) Fermi
(c) Nanometer
(d) Picometer

Answer

Answer: (b) Fermi
Explanation: Fermi – A unit of length equal to 10-15 meter (one femtometer), used in nuclear physics. It is similar to the diameter of a proton.

Q-2 : The purest form of iron is

A) wrought iron
B) steel
C) pig iron
D) nickel steel

Answer

Answer: A) wrought iron
Explanation: Wrought Iron is the purest form of iron. It contains 0.12 to 0.25% carbon and so it is the purest form of iron.

Q-3 : The hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of?

(a) Nuclear Fission
(b) Nuclear Fusion
(c) Chemical Reactions
(d) Electromagnetic Radiation

Answer

Answer: (b) Nuclear Fusion
Explanation: The hydrogen bomb operates on the principle of nuclear fusion, which involves fusing light atomic nuclei (like hydrogen isotopes) to form heavier nuclei, releasing an enormous amount of energy. This fusion reaction is initiated by the intense heat and pressure from a preceding fission reaction (nuclear fission).

Q-4 :In mitochondria rich amount of enzymes and carriers are present on.

(a) outer membrane
(b) inner membrane
(c) matrix
(d) inter-membrane space

Answer

Answer: (b) inner membrane
Explanation: The inner membrane of mitochondria contains the enzymes and carriers necessary for the electron transport chain and ATP production. This membrane is folded into cristae to maximize surface area for these crucial processes.

Q-5 : Which of the following is not a member of the vitamin B complex?

A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Folic acid
D. Ascorbic acid

Answer

Answer: D. Ascorbic acid
Explanation: Vitamin B complex consists of 8 vitamins namely B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B9 and B12. Vitamin B1 is Thiamine, Vit B2 is Riboflavin, Vit B3 is Niacin, Vit B5 is pantothenic acid, Vit B6 is pyridoxine, biotin, folic acid, and Vit B12 is cyanocobalamin.

Elementary Arithmetic

Q-1: The greatest value among the fractions $\frac 27,\frac13,\frac56,\frac34$ is .

A) $\dfrac34$
B) $\dfrac56$
C) $\dfrac13$
D) $\dfrac27$

Answer

Answer: B) $\dfrac56$
Explanation: First, convert all the fractions into decimals
$\frac27 = 0.286, \frac13 = 0.33, \frac 56 = 0.833$ and $\frac34 = 0.75$
Therefore, the greatest fraction is $\frac 56$

Q-2 : Raj’s income is 45,000 and his expenditure is 33,000. If his income increases by 20% and expenditure increases by 12%, then by what percentage will his savings increase?

(a) 48%
(b) 56%
(c) 36%
(d) 42%

Answer

Answer:(d) 42%
Raj’s current savings are 45,000−33,000=12,000
20% increase in income 45,000 x 1.20=54,00
12% increase in expenditure 33,00×1.12=36,96
His new savings will be 54,00−36,96=17,04
The increase in savings is 17,04−12,00=5,04
increase percentage = $\frac{504}{1200}\times100$ = 42 %

Q-3 : The value of $0.65\times0.65 + 0.35 \times 0.35 + 0.70 \times 0.65$ is

(a) 1.75
(b) 1.00
(c) 1.65
(d) 1.55

Answer

Answer : (b) 1.00
Explanation:
= (0.65)² + (0.35)² + 2(0.65)(0.35)
= (0.65 + 0.35)² =1² = 1

Q-4 : A grocer has a sale of Rs 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs, 6500 ?

A) 4991
B) 5467
C) 5987
D) 6453

Answer

Answer : A) Rs. 4991
Explanation: Total sale for 5 months = Rs. (6435 + 6927 + 6855 + 7230 + 6562) = Rs. 34009.
Required sale = Rs.(6500 x 6 )- 34009
= Rs. (39000 – 34009) = Rs. 4991.

Q-5 : $\sqrt{8-2\sqrt{15}$ is equal to

A) $\sqrt{5} + \sqrt{3}$
B) $5 - \sqrt{3}$
C) $\sqrt{5} - \sqrt{3}$
D) $3 - \sqrt{5}$

Answer

Answer : C) $\sqrt{5} - \sqrt{3}$
Explanation:
= $\sqrt{8-2\sqrt{15}$ = $\sqrt{5+3-2\sqrt{5\times3}}$
= $\sqrt{(\sqrt{5})^2+ (\sqrt{3})^2 - 2(\sqrt{5})(\sqrt{3})$
= $\sqrt{(\sqrt{5}-\sqrt{3})^2 }$
= $\sqrt{5}$ – $\sqrt{3}$

General Hindi

प्रश्न 1 : प्रत्येक का सही संधि विच्छेद है –

(a) प्रति + एक
(b) प्रतिः + एक
(c) प्रति + अक
(d) प्रती + एक

Answer

उत्तर : (a) प्रति + एक

प्रश्न 2 : ‘पृथ्वी’ का पर्यायवाची शब्द क्या है?

a) धरणी
b) आकाश
c) जल
d) सूरज

Answer

उत्तर: a) धरणी

प्रश्न 3 :”जो मापा न जा सके” के लिए एक शब्द क्या है?

a) अपरिमेय
b) अनमोल
c) भार
d) अमूल्य

Answer

उत्तर: a) अपरिमेय

प्रश्न 4 : कौन सा शब्द स्त्रीलिंग नहीं हैं ?

a) छात्रा
b) वधु
c) पृथ्वी
d) जीवन

Answer

उत्तर: d) जीवन

प्रश्न 5 : किस लेखक ने “रामचरितमानस” की रचना की?

a) तुलसीदास
b) कालिदास
c) सूरदास
d) मीराबाई

Answer

उत्तर: a) तुलसीदास

General English

Q-1 : Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Vice

a) Looseness
b) Immorality
c) Villainy
d) Wrong

Answer

Answer : b) Immorality

Q-2 : Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech.
The child says, “I do not want to go to school.”

a) The child says that he does not want to go to school.
b) The child says that he do not want to go to school.
c) The child says that I do not want to go to school
d) The child say that I do not want to go to school.

Answer

Answer : a) The child says that he does not want to go to school.

Q-3 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Neena will visit Greece in May

a) Greece has been visited by Neena in May.
b) Greece will visit Neena in May.
c) Greece will be visited by Neena in May
d) Greece had been visited by Neena in May.

Answer

Answer : c) Greece will be visited by Neena in May

Read the following paragraph and answer the following questions : (Q. 4 and 5)

Once upon a time, in a lush green forest, there stood a majestic oak tree. The oak was known for its strength and grandeur, and it had witnessed many seasons come and go. Its branches were home to various birds, and its roots provided shelter to small creatures. One day, a severe storm hit the forest. The oak tree stood firm against the howling winds and pouring rain. Despite the storm’s fury, the oak’s branches swayed but did not break. In the aftermath, while many smaller trees had been uprooted, the oak remained standing, symbolizing resilience and steadfastness.

Q-4: What was the oak tree known for in the forest?

a) Its fruit
b) Its height
c) Its strength and grandeur
d) Its colorful leaves

Answer

Answer: c) Its strength and grandeur

Q-5: What did the oak tree provide for the birds and small creatures?

a) Food
b) Shelter
c) Nesting material
d) Shade

Answer

Answer: b) Shelter

Logic & Reasoning

Q-1 : Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
4, 11, 19, 31, 52, 89, ?

a) 105
b) 151
c) 150
d) 115

Answer

Answer : b) 151
Difference : 7,8,12,21,37,62
Difference of Difference: 1,4,9,16,25 (square of 1,2,3,4,5)

Q-2 : Six students Prateek, Sameer, Kabir, Ziya, Joseph, Kiran are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Prateek is an immediate neighbour of both Sameer and Kabir. Ziya is sitting second to the right of Sameer. Kiran is sitting third to the left of Kabir. Joseph is an immediate neighbour of both Ziya and Kabir. Who is an immediate neighbour of Ziya?

a) sameer
b) Prateek
c) Kabir
d) Kiran

Answer

Answer : d) Kiran

Q-3 : Two statement I and II are given. These statement may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer:
I. The Central government has recently declared to finish the rebate on farming.
II. The Central Government faced financial loss on account of giving rebate on farming for the last few years.

a) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
b) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
c) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
d) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common causes.

Answer

Answer: b) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
Explanation: As the Central Government faced financial loss on accounts of giving rebate on farming for the last few years, therefore, they declared to finish the rebate on farming. Hence, II is the cause while I is the effect.

Q-4 : Out of the given words, three are similar in a certain manner. However, one option is NOT like the other three. Select the option which is different from the rest.

a) Banana
b) Apple
c) Grape
d) Cauliflower

Answer

Answer : d) Cauliflower

Q-5 : S is the sister of T. R is the brother of S. U is the wife of W. T is the father of U. How is T related to W?

a) Father in law
b) Son
c) Father
d) Maternal Uncle

Answer

Answer : a) Father in law

Current Affairs : 10 Questions

Q-1 : Who was re-elected as the Speaker of the 18th Lok Sabha on 26 June 2024?

a) K. Suresh
b) Rahul Gandhi
c) Om Birla
d) Kiren Rijiju

Answer

Answer : c) Om Birla
BJP MP Om Birla was elected as the Speaker of the 18th Lok Sabha. He had previously served as the Speaker in the 17th Lok Sabha.

Q-2: Which institution was ranked first in the Overall category of the NIRF 2024 rankings?

A) IIT Bombay
B) IISc Bengaluru
C) IIT Madras
D) IIT Delhi

Answer

Answer: C) IIT Madras
IIT Madras has been ranked first in the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2024 for Higher Education Institutes in the overall category.

Q-3: Who has been appointed as the new Cabinet Secretary?

a) Rajiv Gauba
b) T.V. Somanathan
c) Ajay Kumar Bhalla
d) P.K. Mishra

Answer

Answer: b) T.V. Somanathan
The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has approved the appointment of T.V. Somanathan as Cabinet Secretary for two years, starting from August 30th, 2024.

Q-4: Who is the youngest medal winner for India at the Olympics?

A) PV Sindhu
B) Neeraj Chopra
C) Aman Sehrawat
D) Sushil Kumar

Answer

Answer: C) Aman Sehrawat
Explanation:
Aman Sehrawat became the youngest medal winner for India at the Olympics by clinching a bronze medal in the Men’s 57kg freestyle event at the Paris Olympics on August 9, 2024. He achieved this feat at the age of 21 years and 24 days, surpassing the previous record held by PV Sindhu, who won a medal at the age of 22 years.

Q-5: Who was sworn in as the head of Bangladesh’s caretaker government on 8 August 2024?

A) Sheikh Hasina
B) Muhammad Yunus
C) Khaleda Zia
D) Abdul Hamid

Answer

Answer: B) Muhammad Yunus
On 8 August 2024, Muhammad Yunus, a Nobel Peace Prize-winning economist, was sworn in as the head of Bangladesh’s caretaker government after Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina resigned amid violent protests.

Q-6: Who won Iran’s presidential election in July 2024?

A) Saeed Jalili
B) Masoud Pezeshkian
C) Hassan Rouhani
D) Mahmoud Ahmadinejad

Answer

Ans : B) Masoud Pezeshkian
Masoud Pezeshkian, a reformist candidate, won Iran’s presidential election. Pezeshkian secured 53.3% of the votes.

Q-7: How long does it take for the Aditya-L1 spacecraft to complete one revolution around the L1 point?

a) 92 days
b) 178 days
c) 365 days
d) 730 days

Answer

Ans : b) 178 days
The Aditya-L1 mission is an Indian solar observatory positioned at Lagrangian point L1. It was launched on September 2, 2023. The spacecraft takes 178 days to complete one revolution around the L1 point.

Q-8: The tragic accident during the satsang of Bhole Baba that killed 121 people in July 2024 occurred in which district of Uttar Pradesh?

A) Aligarh
B) Agra
C) Hathras
D) Lucknow

Answer

Answer: C) Hathras
The stampede accident during the satsang of Bhole Baba on June2, 2024, in Ratibhanpur Mughalgarhi village, Sikandrarau tehsil, Hathras district, Uttar Pradesh, resulted in 121 deaths.

Q-9: Who has been appointed as the Chief Secretary of Uttar Pradesh?

A) Rajendra Kumar Tiwari
B) Prashant Trivedi
C) Durga Shankar Mishra
D) Manoj Kumar Singh

Answer

Answer: D) Manoj Kumar Singh
Manoj Kumar Singh, a 1988-batch IAS officer of the Uttar Pradesh cadre, has been appointed Chief Secretary of Uttar Pradesh on 30 June 2024

Q-10 : When the three new criminal laws in India came into force?

A) June 30, 2024
B) July 1, 2024
C) August 1, 2024
D) January 1, 2024

Answer

Ans : B) July 1, 2024
The three new criminal laws in India—Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023; Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023; and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023— come into force with effect from 1 July 2024.

General Awareness :

Q-1: The boundary of which of the following countries does not touch India ?

a) Nepal
b) Iran
c) Myanmar
d) Bangladesh

Answer

Answer: b) Iran

Q-2 What is the name of the currency of Japan?

a) Yen
b) Pounds
c) Dollars
d) Dinar

Answer

Answer : a) Yen

Q-3 : Which city is the capital of Canada ?

a) Toronto
b) Montreal
c) Ottawa
d) ancouver

Answer

Answer : c) Ottawa

Q-4 : Which state in India is the largest by area?

A) Maharashtra
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Rajasthan

Answer

Answer: D) Rajasthan
Explanation: Rajasthan is the largest state in India by area, covering about 342,239 square kilometers. Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh are also large states, but not as extensive as Rajasthan. Uttar Pradesh, while the most populous, is not the largest by area.

Q-5 : Which Union Territory has its own Legislative Assembly?

A) Chandigarh
B) Puducherry
C) Ladakh
D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Answer

Answer: B) Puducherry
Explanation: Puducherry is the only Union Territory with its own Legislative Assembly and Chief Minister. Chandigarh, Ladakh, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands do not have Legislative Assemblies.

Q-6 : Who nominates the members of the Legislative Council?

A) The State Governor
B) The Chief Minister
C) The State Legislative Assembly
D) The Parliament of India

Answer

Answer: A) The State Governor
Explanation: The State Governor nominates a portion of the members of the Legislative Council based on the recommendations made by the Chief Minister and the State Cabinet. The rest are elected by various constituencies and bodies.

Q-7 : Which of the following days is celebrated as Children’s Day in India?

A) November 14
B) August 15
C) January 26
D) October 2

Answer

Answer: A) November 14
Explanation: Children’s Day in India is celebrated on November 14, the birthday of Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, who was known for his love of children. This day is dedicated to the welfare and education of children.

Q-8 : Which of the following international days is celebrated on March 8?

A) International Women’s Day
B) International Day of Peace
C) International Youth Day
D) International Mother Language Day

Answer

Answer: A) International Women’s Day
Explanation: International Women’s Day is celebrated globally on March 8 to honor the achievements and contributions of women and to promote gender equality.

Q-9 : Which of the following international organizations has its headquarters in India?

A) World Health Organization (WHO)
B) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
C) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
D) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)

Answer

Answer: C) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
Explanation: SAARC, an organization aimed at regional cooperation and development among South Asian nations, has its headquarters in Kathmandu, Nepal.

Q-10 : Which classical dance form originated in the state of Andhra Pradesh?

A) Kathakali
B) Bharatnatyam
C) Kuchipudi
D) Odissi

Answer

Answer: C) Kuchipudi
Explanation: Kuchipudi is a classical dance form that originated in the state of Andhra Pradesh.

Analysis and Interpretation of Unseen Hindi Passages

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढकर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए :

“हरखू एक छोटे से गाँव में रहता था। उसकी एक छोटी सी झोपड़ी थी और वह दिन-रात मेहनत करता था। हरखू के पास एक गाय थी, जो उसे दूध देती थी। दूध बेचकर वह अपना घर चलाता था। गाँव वाले हरखू की मेहनत और ईमानदारी की बहुत सराहना करते थे। एक दिन, गाँव में बहुत बड़ी बाढ़ आई और हरखू का पूरा खेत और झोपड़ी पानी में डूब गए। बाढ़ के बाद, गाँव वालों ने मिलकर हरखू की मदद की और उसकी झोपड़ी और खेत को फिर से बनवाया। हरखू ने गाँव वालों के प्रति आभार व्यक्त किया और उन्हें धन्यवाद कहा। उसकी कहानी हमें सिखाती है कि कठिनाइयों में भी हमें सहयोग और एकता का महत्व समझना चाहिए।”

प्रश्न 1 : हरखू किस प्रकार का काम करता था?

A) खेती
B) व्यापार
C) मज़दूरी
D) गाय का पालन

Answer

उत्तर : D) गाय का पालन

प्रश्न 2 : गाँव में बाढ़ आने के बाद हरखू का क्या हुआ?

A) उसकी गाय खो गई
B) उसकी झोपड़ी और खेत पानी में डूब गए
C) उसकी झोपड़ी जल गई
D) उसके खेत में फसल अच्छी हुई

Answer

उत्तर : B) उसकी झोपड़ी और खेत पानी में डूब गए

प्रश्न 3 : गाँव वालों ने हरखू की मदद कैसे की?

A) उसे नया घर देने का प्रस्ताव दिया
B) उसकी झोपड़ी और खेत को फिर से बनवाया
C) उसे बहुत सारे पैसे दिए
D) उसकी गाय को ठीक किया

Answer

उत्तर : B) उसकी झोपड़ी और खेत को फिर से बनवाया

प्रश्न 4 : हरखू ने गाँव वालों को क्या कहा?

A) उसने उन्हें खरी-खरी सुनाई
B) उसने धन्यवाद कहा
C) उसने उनसे मदद की अपेक्षा की
D) उसने अपने खेत बेच दिए

Answer

उत्तर : B) उसने धन्यवाद कहा

प्रश्न 5 : हरखू की कहानी हमें क्या सिखाती है?

A) सहयोग और एकता का महत्व
B) व्यक्तिगत सफलता के महत्व
C) धन का महत्व
D) शिक्षा की महत्वता

Answer

उत्तर : A) सहयोग और एकता का महत्व

निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढकर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए :

“हमारी पुस्तकालय में विभिन्न प्रकार की पुस्तकें उपलब्ध हैं। यहाँ पर साहित्य, विज्ञान, गणित, और इतिहास की किताबें मिलती हैं। पुस्तकालय के कर्मचारियों का कहना है कि पढ़ाई की आदत डालने से जीवन में सफलता प्राप्त की जा सकती है। उन्होंने छात्रों को नियमित रूप से पुस्तकालय आने और यहाँ की किताबें पढ़ने की सलाह दी है। किताबों के माध्यम से ज्ञान प्राप्त होता है, जो भविष्य में महत्वपूर्ण साबित हो सकता है। पुस्तकालय के शांत वातावरण में पढ़ाई करने से ध्यान केंद्रित करने में आसानी होती है। इस प्रकार, पुस्तकालय एक महत्वपूर्ण संसाधन है जो शिक्षा में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाता है।”

प्रश्न 1 : पुस्तकालय में कौन-कौन सी किताबें उपलब्ध हैं?

A) केवल विज्ञान की किताबें
B) केवल साहित्य की किताबें
C) साहित्य, विज्ञान, गणित, और इतिहास की किताबें
D) केवल गणित की किताबें

Answer

उत्तर : C) साहित्य, विज्ञान, गणित, और इतिहास की किताबें

प्रश्न 2: पुस्तकालय के कर्मचारियों की सलाह क्या है?

A) किताबें खरीदने की सलाह
B) पुस्तकालय में समय बिताने की सलाह
C) नियमित रूप से पुस्तकालय आने और पढ़ाई करने की सलाह
D) केवल साहित्य पढ़ने की सलाह

Answer

उत्तर : C) नियमित रूप से पुस्तकालय आने और पढ़ाई करने की सलाह

प्रश्न 3 : पुस्तकालय का शांत वातावरण किस में सहायक होता है?

A) किताबें खरीदने में
B) ध्यान केंद्रित करने में
C) किताबें पढ़ने में
D) किताबों की देखभाल में

Answer

Answer: B) ध्यान केंद्रित करने में

प्रश्न 4 : पुस्तकालय की क्या भूमिका बताई गई है?

A) केवल किताबें जमा करने की
B) शिक्षा में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाने की
C) किताबों की बिक्री करने की
D) खेलों की व्यवस्था करने की

Answer

उत्तर : B) शिक्षा में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाने की

प्रश्न 5: पुस्तकालय के कर्मचारियों का मानना है कि क्या संभव है?

A) पढ़ाई करने से जीवन में सफल नहीं हुआ जा सकता
B) पढ़ाई की आदत से जीवन में सफलता प्राप्त की जा सकती है
C) पुस्तकालय में केवल मनोरंजन के लिए आना चाहिए
D) किताबें पढ़ने से केवल समय बर्बाद होता है

Answer

उत्तर : B) पढ़ाई की आदत से जीवन में सफलता प्राप्त की जा सकती है

Graph Interpretation and Analysis :

Directions (1–5): In the following questions, the bar graph shows the sales of bike and cars of five companies J, K, L, M, and N.

P1 = The total sales of bikes of all the 5 companies.
P2 = The total sales of cars of all the 5 companies.
What is the value of (p2-p1) ?

a) 550
b) 350
c) 450
d) 400

Answer

Answer : c) 450

Q-2 :What is the average sale of bikes of all five companies.

a) 110
b) 150
c) 100
d) 250

Answer

Answer : a) 110
bike sales = 50 + 25 + 125 + 150 + 200= 550
= $\frac{550}{5}$ = 110

Q-3 :The sales of car is how much percentage more then the sales of bike in companies L ?

a) 40 %
b) 50 %
c) 60 %
d) 80 %

Answer

Answer : a) 40 %

Q-4 : Which company sales highest number of bike ?

a) J
b) K
c) L
d) N

Answer

Answer : d) N

Q-5: The difference of bikes to car sales is highest in which company ?

a) J
b) N
c) L
d) M

Answer

Answer : a) J

Directions (6–10): In the following questions, the graph shows the demand and production of different companies. Study the graph and answer the questions.

Q-6 : The demand of company B is what percentage of the production of
company F?

a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 80%
d) 50%

Answer

Answer : b) 70%
Explanation : $\frac{3150}{4500}\times 100$ =70%

Q-7 : What is the difference between the average demand and the average production of the companies (in lakh tonnes)?

a) 200
b) 325
c) 275
d) 250

Answer

Answer : c) 275
Explanation : $\frac{2100+3150+2600+5000+2800+3300}{6}$
= $\frac{18950}{6}$
Average production
= $\frac{1450+3660+3100+4200+3700+4500}{6}$
= $\frac{20610}{6}$
Required difference
= $\frac{20610}{6}$ – $\frac{18950}{6}$
= $\frac{1660}{6}$ = 2767 lakh tonnes

Q-8 : The production of company A is approximately what per cent of the
demand of company C?

a) 50%
b) 65%
c) 60%
d) 55%

Answer

Answer : d) 55%
Explanation: Required percent
= $\frac{1450}{2600}\times 100$
= $\frac{1450}{26}$ = 55.8

Q-9 : What is the ratio of the companies having more demand than production to those having more production than demand?

a) 2 : 3
b) 1 : 2
c) 3 : 2
d) 2 : 1

Answer

Answer : 1 : 2
Explanation: Companies having more demand than production
A and D
Companies having more production than demand
B, C, E and F
Required ratio = 2 : 4 = 1 : 2

Q-10 : What is the average production of company C, D, and E ?

a) 3666.68
b) 3678.12
c) 3564.50
d) 2547.33

Answer

Answer : a) 3666.68
Company = 3100+ 4200+3700
= $\frac{\11000}{3}$ = 3666.68

Table Questions :

Q-1 : The table given below shows the production of bike and truck by five companies.

–	Production	production
Companies	Bike	truck
A	300	200
B	175	100
C	200	50
D	75	250
E	100	275

J1 = the average production of bike by all the 5 con companies.
J2 = the average production of truck by all the 5 con companies.
What is the value of (J1: J2) ?

a) 35 : 34
b) 37 : 33
c) 34 : 35
d) 31 : 37

Answer

Answer : c) 34 : 35

Q-2 : What is the average production of bikes (J1) by all the 5 companies?

A) 150
B) 170
C) 180
D) 190

Answer

Answer: 170
Explanation: To find J1, sum the bike production of all companies and divide by the number of companies.
J1= $\frac{ 300+175+200+75+100}{5}$ = $\frac{850}{5}$ =170

Q-3 : What is the average production of trucks (J2) by all the 5 companies?

A) 150
B) 165
C) 175
D) 200

Answer

Answer: C) 175
Explanation: To find J2, sum the truck production of all companies and divide by the number of companies.
J2= $\frac{200 + 100 + 50 + 250 + 275}{5}$ = $\frac{875}{5}$ = 175

Q-4: Which company has the highest difference between bike and truck production?

A) Company A
B) Company B
C) Company C
D) Company D

Answer

Answer : D) Company D
Explanation: Calculate the difference between bike and truck production for each company.
Company A: 300−200=100
Company B: 175−100=75
Company C: 200−50=150
Company D: 75−250=−175
The highest absolute difference is for Company D.

Q-5 : If the bike production of Company C were to increase by 25%, what would be the new average bike production?

A) 175
B) 180
C) 185
D) 190

Answer

Answer:B) 180
Explanation: Increase Company C’s bike production by 25% and calculate the new average
New production for C = 200×1.25 = 250
New total production = 300+175+250+75+100=900
New average= $\frac{900}{5} = 180$

The table given below shows the cost price and selling price of four articles .

Articles	cost price	Selling price
D	550	450
E	750	700
F	650	450
G	950	650

Q-1 : The total cost price of D, E and F is what percent of the total selling price of E, F and G ?

A) 118.37
B) 105.37
C) 101.33
D) 108.33

Answer

Answer : D) 108.33

Q.-2: What percentage of loss incurred in the selling of article D ?

A) 18.18 %
B) 19.18 %
C) 13.33 %
D) 15.34 %

Answer

Answer : A) 18.18 %
loss = 550 – 450 = 100
Percentage = $\{100}{550}\times100$ = 18.18 %

Q-3 : Which article has the highest percentage loss?

A) Article D
B) Article E
C) Article F
D) Article G

Answer

Answer D) Article G
Explanation: Calculate the percentage loss for each article.
Percentage loss for D = $\frac{550 - 450}{550} \times 100$ = 18.18
Percentage loss for E = $\frac{750 - 700}{750} \times 100$ = 6.67%
Percentage loss for F = $\frac{650 - 450}{650} \times 100$ = 30.77%
Percentage loss for = $\frac{950 - 650}{950} \times 100$ =31.58%
The highest percentage loss is for Article G.

Q-4: What is the overall profit or loss for all articles combined?

A) Profit of 200
B) Loss of 200
C) Profit of 650
D) Loss of 650

Answer

Answer : D) Loss of 650
Explanation: Calculate the total profit or loss for each article and sum them.
Profit/Loss for D=450−550 = −100
Profit/Loss for E=700−750 = −50
Profit/Loss for F=450−650 = −200
Profit/Loss for G=650−950 =−300
Total loss = -100 – 50 – 200 – 300 = -650

Q-5 :Which article has the smallest loss amount?

A) Article D
B) Article E
C) Article F
D) Article G

Answer

Answer : B) Article E
Explanation: Compare the loss amounts for each article.
Loss for D=100
Loss for E=50
Loss for F=200
Loss for G=300
The smallest loss is for Article E.

Thanks for attempt UPSSSC PET Practice Test in English for upcoming exams.