Are you preparing for the upcoming UPSSSC PET Examination? Test your preparation with this full-length online mock test designed specifically for aspirants of the Uttar Pradesh Preliminary Eligibility Test (PET) 2026–27.
This mock test contains 100 carefully selected questions based on the latest syllabus and expected exam pattern. The questions cover all important sections of the PET exam, helping candidates strengthen their concepts, improve accuracy, and gain confidence before the actual examination.
UP PET Practice Set in English
Indian History
Q-1: Which of the following sites is considered one of the major urban centers of the Indus Valley Civilization?
A) Mohenjo-Daro
B) Patliputra
C) Ayodhya
D) Varanasi
Explanation: Mohenjo-Daro, located in present-day Pakistan, is one of the largest and most well-known urban centers of the Indus Valley Civilization.
Q-2: Where was Gautam Buddha born?
A) Varanasi
B) Lumbini
C) Bodh Gaya
D) Sarnath
Explanation: Gautam Buddha was born in Lumbini, which is in present-day Nepal.
Q-3: Harshvardhan, also known as Harsha, was the ruler of which ancient Indian empire?
A) Gupta Empire
B) Maurya Empire
C) Vardhana Empire
D) Chola Empire
Explanation: Harshvardhan ruled the Vardhana Empire, which was established by his family. The empire is distinct from the Gupta and Maurya Empires, which were earlier significant powers in Indian history.
Q-4: Who was the founder of the Mughal Empire in India?
A) Akbar
B) Babur
C) Humayun
D) Shah Jahan
Explanation: Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire, established it after his victory in the Battle of Panipat in 1526.
Q-5: Who was the last Chhatrapati of the Maratha Empire?
A) Shivaji Maharaj
B) Shahu Chhatrapati
C) Ramaraja
D) Shahu II
Explanation: Shahu II was the last Chhatrapati of the Maratha Empire, ruling during the decline of the empire in the 19th century.
Indian National Movement :
Q-1: When did the Quit India Movement begin?
A) 1942
B) 1935
C) 1947
D) 1940
Explanation: The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Movement, started in August 1942 as a call for the immediate end of British rule in India.
Q-2 : Which slogan was famously associated with Subhas Chandra Bose and the Azad Hind Fauj?
A) “Jai Hind”
B) “Satyamev Jayate”
C) “Bharat Mata Ki Jai”
D) “Vande Mataram”
Explanation: “Jai Hind” (Victory to India) was a popular slogan used by Subhas Chandra Bose and his army.
Q-3 : Who was the first president of the Indian National Congress to be of Indian origin?
A) Dadabhai Naoroji
B) Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee
C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Explanation: Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee was the first Indian president of the Indian National Congress, serving in 1890. His election marked the beginning of greater Indian participation in the leadership of the Congress.
Q-4: What is the key principle behind Satyagraha ?
A) Physical force
B) Economic boycott
C) Non-violence
D) Armed struggle
Solution: The key principle of Satyagraha is non-violence.
Q-5 In which year did Gandhi return to India from South Africa?
a) 1910
b) 1915
c) 1920
d) 1930
Explanation: Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915, after his successful struggle for civil rights in South Africa.
Geography :
Q-1 : Mount Everest is located in which mountain range?
A) Alps
B) Rockies
C) Himalayas
D) Andes
Explanation: Mount Everest, the highest peak in the world, is part of the Himalayas, which extend across five countries: Bhutan, China, India, Nepal, and Pakistan.
Q-2 : The percentage of freshwater in earth is ?
a) 1.5 percent
b) 2.5 percent
c) 3.5 percent
d) 5.5 percent
Explanation : About 2.5% of the Earth’s water is freshwater. The majority of this freshwater is locked away in glaciers and ice caps, with only a small fraction accessible for direct human use in rivers, lakes, and groundwater. The rest of the Earth’s water is primarily saltwater in the oceans.
Q-3 : Which Indian state has the longest coastline?
a) Gujarat
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Kerala
d) Maharashtra
Explanation: Gujarat has the longest coastline of any Indian state, stretching over 1,600 kilometers. It is located on the western edge of India, bordered by the Arabian Sea.
Q-4: Which Indian state shares its border with the most number of countries?
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) West Bengal
c) Sikkim
d) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh shares its border with three countries: Bhutan, China, and Myanmar, making it the Indian state with the most international borders.
Q-5: What is the standard time zone of Greenwich, England called?
A) UTC+1
B) UTC
C) UTC-1
D) GMT
Explanation: Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) is the time standard originally used to define the time zone for Greenwich, England. It is effectively the same as Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) in practice
Indian Economy :
Q-1: What does the acronym GST stand for in Indian taxation?
A) Goods and Services Tax
B) General Sales Tax
C) Goods and State Tax
D) Government Sales Tax
Explanation: GST stands for Goods and Services Tax, which is a unified tax system implemented to streamline indirect taxation.
Q-2: Which economic policy aimed at liberalizing the Indian economy was introduced in 1991?
A) Green Revolution
B) Economic Reforms
C) Industrial Policy Resolution
D) New Economic Policy
Explanation: The New Economic Policy introduced in 1991 included liberalization, privatization, and globalization measures to reform the Indian economy.
Q-3: In which year did Operation Flood begin?
A) 1965
B) 1970
C) 1980
D) 1990
Explanation: Operation Flood began in 1970 with the aim of transforming India’s dairy industry.
Q-4: Who is often referred to as the ‘Father of the White Revolution’ in India?
A) Dr. Verghese Kurien
B) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
C) Dr. C. Subramaniam
D) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
Explanation: Dr. Verghese Kurien is known as the ‘Father of the White Revolution’ for his significant role in transforming India’s dairy industry.
Q-5: The ‘National Agriculture Market’ (eNAM) is an online trading platform for:
A) Agricultural machinery
B) Farm inputs
C) Agricultural produce
D) Livestock
Explanation: eNAM is an online trading platform designed to facilitate the trading of agricultural produce and connect farmers with markets.
Indian Constitution & Public Administration :
Q-1: Who is known as the ‘Father of the Indian Constitution’?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Sardar Patel
C) B.R. Ambedkar
D) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is regarded as the ‘Father of the Indian Constitution’ for his role as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee and his significant contributions to the framing of the Constitution.
Q-2: Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of the Governor of a State?
A) Article 152
B) Article 153
C) Article 155
D) Article 156
Explanation: Article 155 provides for the appointment of the Governor by the President of India.
Q-3: In a parliamentary system, who is the head of the government?
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Chief Justice
D) Speaker of the House
Explanation: In a parliamentary system, the Prime Minister is the head of the government and is responsible for running the executive branch.
Q-4: Which house of Parliament in India is known as the Upper House?
A) Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Senate
D) House of Commons
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House of Parliament in India, while the Lok Sabha is the Lower House.
Q-5: What is the maximum term of office for the President of India?
A) 4 years
B) 5 years
C) 6 years
D) 7 years
Explanation: The President of India is elected for a maximum term of 5 years. This is similar to the term for the President of the United States but differs from terms in other countries. There is no set term of 4, 6, or 7 years for the office of the President in India.
General Science :
Q-1: What is the SI unit of energy?
A) Joule
B) Watt
C) Newton
D) Pascal
Explanation: The SI unit of energy is the Joule (J), named after James Prescott Joule.
Q-2 : What is the unit of power in the SI system?
A) Joule
B) Watt
C) Newton
D) Volt
Explanation: The unit of power in the SI system is the Watt (W), named after James Watt.
Q-3 :What is the chemical formula for water?
A) H₂O
B) CO₂
C) H₂O₂
D) CH₄
Explanation: The chemical formula for water is H₂O, indicating two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom.
Q-4 : What is the basic unit of life?
A) Tissue
B) Organ
C) Cell
D) Organism
Explanation: The cell is considered the basic unit of life because it is the smallest unit that can carry out all life processes.
Q-5 : Which blood type is considered the universal donor?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
Explanation: Blood type O negative is considered the universal donor because it does not have A, B, or Rh antigens on the surface of its red blood cells, reducing the risk of transfusion reactions.
Elementary Arithmetic :
Q-1 :What is the greatest five-digit number that is completely divisible by 8, 15, 16, 21 and 5 ?
A) 95760
B) 98320
C) 99120
D) 92680
Explanation: LCM of 8, 15, 16, 21, 5 = 1680
greatest five-digit number = 99999
99999/1680 = 879 Remainder
= 99999 – 879 = 99120
Q-2: Find the difference between the digits of the largest number which can exactly divide 144 and 216?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 2
D) 4
The HCF of 144 and 216 is 72.
Now, find the difference between the digits of HCF(72):
The digits in 72 are 7 and 2
Difference of these digits: 7−2=57 – 2 = 57−2=5
Q-3: A car travels the first 140 km in 3 hours and the next 180 km in 5 hours. What is its average speed (in km/h) during the entire journey
A) 50
B) 45
C) 30
D) 40
140+180 = 320 Km
Time = 3+5 =8Hrs
Average speed =320/8=40 km/h
Q-4: Simplify the following? 30 % of [ { (820% of 40) – 28 } ] % of 600
A) 200
B) 540
C) 500
D) 250
30 % of [ { (40×820/100) – 28 } ] % of 600,
30 % of [ { 328 – 28 } ] % of 600,
30 % of [ 300 ] % of 600,
30 % of 600 x300/100,
30 % of 1800,
1800×30/100=540
Q-5 : If $ 27^{2x-1} = (243)^3$, then what is the value of x?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 7
D) 9
Example- $ 27{2x-1} = (243)^3$
$ (3^{3})^{2x-1} = (3^{5})^{3}$
$ 3^{6x-3} = 3^{15}$
6x – 3 = 15
6x = 18
x = 3
Hence, the correct option is (a)
General Hindi :
प्रश्न 1 : इत्यादि का सही संधि-विच्छेद है ?
(a) इत् + यादि
(b) इति + यादि
(c) इत् + आदि
(d) इति + आदि
प्रश्न 2 : विलोम शब्द चुनें:
“उत्साही”
A) निष्क्रिय
B) सक्रिय
C) तेज
D) आलसी
प्रश्न 3 : कौन-सा पर्यायवाची ‘जल’ का नहीं है
(a) पानी
(b) वारिद
(c) तोय
(d) अम्बु
प्रश्न 4 : “उदित हरिपद” के लेखक कौन हैं?
A) तुलसीदास
B) सूरदास
C) कबीर
D) मीरा बाई
स्पष्टीकरण: “उदित हरिपद” सूरदास की एक काव्य रचना है, जिसमें उन्होंने भगवान कृष्ण के चरणों की महिमा का वर्णन किया है।
प्रश्न 5 : नीचे दिए गए शब्दों में से कौन सा शब्द स्त्रीलिंग है?
A) पुस्तक
B) दरवाजा
C) घर
D) बच्चा
General English
Q-1 : What is the antonym of “ancient”?
A) Old
B) Historic
C) Modern
D) Traditional
Explanation: “Ancient” refers to something very old. Its antonym, “modern,” refers to something new or recent.
Q-2 : Choose the correct verb form to complete the sentence:
“She ____ to the market every Saturday.”
A) go
B) goes
C) going
D) gone
Explanation: The sentence refers to a regular action in the present. For a singular subject “she,” the correct present simple form is “goes.”
Q-3 : Choose the correct spelling:
A) Occured
B) Occurred
C) Ocurred
D) Ocurred
Explanation: The correct spelling is “Occurred,” with two “r”s and two “c”s.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following questions :
In a small town nestled between rolling hills, a community center serves as the heart of social activity. Every weekend, families gather to participate in various events, including local fairs, sports tournaments, and educational workshops. The center features a large hall for events, a library with a diverse collection of books, and a playground for children. Volunteers manage the center, organizing activities that aim to bring people together and foster a sense of unity among residents.
Q-1: Who manages the activities at the community center?
A) Paid staff members
B) Local businesses
C) Volunteers
D) Government officials
Explanation: The passage states that volunteers manage the community center and organize activities.
Q-2: What type of events are held at the community center?
A) International conferences
B) Local fairs, sports tournaments, and educational workshops
C) Corporate meetings
D) Private parties
Explanation: The passage specifies that local fairs, sports tournaments, and educational workshops are among the events held at the community center.
Logic & Reasoning
Q-1: If in a coding system 38474 is coded as 47565, then how will 28464 be coded in the same coding system?
A) 37337
B) 73133
C) 37555
D) 37133
Q-2 : If Suman is the wife of the son of Rajesh’s wife, then how is Suman related to Rajesh?
A) Sister
B) Brother’s wife
C) Wife
D) Daughter-in-law
Q-3 : On Tuesday, I reaching a meeting place, 15 minutes before 08:30 in the morning, I found that I had reached half an hour earlier than the person who came 40 minutes late. What was the scheduled time of the meeting?
A) 08:00
B) 08:05
C) 08:15
D) 08:40
Q-4: If 8th April was Monday, then what will be the day on 30th of the same month?
A) Monday
B) Tuesday
C) Wednesday
D) Friday
Q-5: In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements:
I. All R are P.
II. All P are J.
Conclusions:
I. All P are R.
II. All J are P.
III. All R are J
A) Only conclusion II follows
B) Only conclusion I follows
C) All conclusion follows
D) Only conclusion III follows
Current Affairs
Question: Who is the youngest medal winner for India at the Olympics?
A) PV Sindhu
B) Neeraj Chopra
C) Aman Sehrawat
D) Sushil Kumar
Explanation:
Aman Sehrawat became the youngest medal winner for India at the Olympics by clinching a bronze medal in the Men’s 57kg freestyle event at the Paris Olympics on August 9, 2024. He achieved this feat at the age of 21 years and 24 days, surpassing the previous record held by PV Sindhu, who won a medal at the age of 22 years.
Q.: Which country’s space agency announced the Chang’e-7 mission aimed at exploring water ice on the Moon’s south pole in June 2026?
a) NASA (USA)
b) Roscosmos (Russia)
c) CNSA (China)
d) ESA (Europe)
On 8 June 2026, the China National Space Administration announced a major achievement in lunar exploration through its Chang’e-7 Mission. The mission successfully demonstrated the extraction and analysis of water molecules from the Moon’s south pole region, marking an important step toward future lunar habitation and resource utilization.
Q.: ‘Vinimay’, launched by Union Home Minister Amit Shah in June 2026, is a digital platform associated with which of the following?
A) Airport Management
B) Railway Freight Operations
C) Land Port Management System (LPMS)
D) nland Waterways Logistics
Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated the Land Port Management System (LPMS) ‘Vinimay’ on 9 June 2026. The digital platform aims to modernize and streamline operations at India’s land ports by enabling seamless coordination among customs, immigration, border security forces, and other agencies.
Q.: The FIFA World Cup 2026, jointly hosted by Canada, Mexico, and the United States, featured how many teams?
a) 32
b) 40
c) 48
d) 64
The FIFA World Cup 2026 officially began on 11 June 2026. It is jointly hosted by Canada, Mexico, and United States, making it the first FIFA World Cup hosted by three countries. It is also the first edition of the tournament to feature 48 teams, expanding from the previous format of 32 teams.
Q.: On 10 June 2026, Narendra Modi became the longest-serving elected Prime Minister of India, surpassing whose record?
a) Indira Gandhi
b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Manmohan Singh
On 10 June 2026, Prime Minister Narendra Modi became the longest-serving elected Prime Minister in India’s history. He completed 4,399 consecutive days in office, surpassing the record of Jawaharlal Nehru, who served 4,398 days as an elected Prime Minister between 1952 and 1964.
Q.: Which 15-year-old cricketer received his maiden call-up to the Indian T20 squad announced in June 2026?
A) Ayush Mhatre
B) Vaibhav Sooryavanshi
C) Musheer Khan
D) Andre Siddarth
The BCCI included young sensation Vaibhav Sooryavanshi in the Indian T20 squad for the first time after his impressive IPL 2026 season.He was rewarded for being one of the highest run-scorers of the season, while Prince Yadav was also added to the squad.
Surha Tal in Uttar Pradesh, designated as India’s 100th Ramsar site in June 2026, is located in which district?
A) Varanasi
B) Ballia
C) Gorakhpur
D) Lucknow
Surha Tal (Jai Prakash Narayan Bird Sanctuary) in Ballia, Uttar Pradesh, was officially designated as India’s 100th Ramsar site on 5 June 2026
Ramsar sites are wetlands of international importance recognized under the Ramsar Convention
India’s first Ramsar sites were Chilika Lake in Odisha and Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan, designated in 1981.
.
Q: Where is the World’s highest tunnel, Shinkun La Tunnel, located?
a) Sikkim
b) Arunachal Pradesh
c) Ladakh
d) Himachal Pradesh
The Shinkun La Tunnel is located in Ladakh. On 26 July 2024, Prime Minister Narendra Modi initiated the construction of the world’s highest tunnel in Kargil by carrying out the first blast. The tunnel will be 4.1 kilometers long and will consist of twin tubes. It is being built at an altitude of approximately 15,800 feet on the Nimu–Padum–Darcha Road..
Q.: Which cultural site from the Northeast became the first to be inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List under the Cultural Category?
A) Kaziranga National Park
B)Majuli Island
C) Moidams
D) Kamakhya Temple
The Moidams of the Ahom Dynasty in Assam were officially declared India’s 43rd World Heritage Site under the Cultural Category during the 46th Session of the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, held in New Delhi from 21 to 31 July 2024. It became the first cultural site from Northeast India to be inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List under the Cultural Category.
Additional Fact
Moidams are the burial mounds of the Ahom kings and nobles, reflecting the unique funerary traditions and architectural heritage of the Ahom civilization.
Q.: The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) consists of how many permanent and non-permanent members?
a) 5 permanent and 10 non-permanent members
b) 10 permanent and 5 non-permanent members
c) 6 permanent and 9 non-permanent members
d) 15 permanent members only
The UN Security Council consists of 15 members, including 5 permanent members—China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States—and 10 non-permanent members elected by the UN General Assembly.
General Awareness:
Q-1: Which of the following countries does NOT share a border with India?
A) Nepal
B) Bhutan
C) Myanmar
D) Sri Lanka
Explanation: Sri Lanka does not share a land border with India. It is an island nation to the southeast of India, while Nepal, Bhutan, and Myanmar do share land borders with India.
Q-2: What is the capital of Japan and its currency?
A) Beijing – Renminbi
B) Tokyo – Yen
C) Seoul – Won
D) Bangkok – Baht
Explanation: Tokyo is the capital of Japan, and the currency used in Japan is the Yen.
Q-3: Which of the following is a Union Territory of India?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Gujarat
C) Ladakh
D) Rajasthan
Explanation: Ladakh is a Union Territory of India, created in 2019. Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, and Rajasthan are Indian states.
Q-4: Which house of the Indian Parliament is known as the “Council of States”?
A) Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Legislative Assembly
D) Legislative Council
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha is known as the “Council of States” in the Indian Parliament. It represents the states and Union Territories.
Q-5: Which date is celebrated as World Environment Day?
A) June 5
B) March 22
C) December 10
D) October 16
Explanation: World Environment Day is celebrated on June 5 each year to raise awareness about environmental issues and encourage action.
Q-6: Where is the headquarters of the United Nations located?
A) Geneva
B) New York City
C) Paris
D) Vienna
Explanation: The headquarters of the United Nations is located in New York City, USA.
Q-7: Which of the following is a famous tourist destination in India known for its palaces and forts?
A) Mumbai
B) Jaipur
C) Delhi
D) Chennai
Explanation: Jaipur, also known as the Pink City, is renowned for its historic palaces and forts, including the Amer Fort and City Palace.
Q-8: Which Indian dance form is known for its elaborate gestures and facial expressions?
A) Kathak
B) Bharatanatyam
C) Kathakali
D) Odissi
Explanation: Kathakali is a classical Indian dance form from Kerala, known for its dramatic expressions, elaborate costumes, and intricate gestures.
Q-9: Which sport is associated with the term “hat-trick”?
A) Football
B) Cricket
C) Tennis
D) Hockey
Explanation: In cricket, a “hat-trick” refers to a bowler taking three wickets with three consecutive deliveries. It is also used in other sports, but it is most commonly associated with cricket.
Q-10: Which of the following is an Indian space research organization?
A) ISRO
B) DRDO
C) CSIR
D) BARC
Explanation: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the primary space research agency in India, known for its space missions and satellite launches.
अपठित हिन्दी गद्यांश का विवेचन एवं विश्लेषण
भारत में हरित क्रांति का मुख्य उद्देश्य देश को खाद्यान्न मामले में आत्मनिर्भर बनाना था, लेकिन इस बात की आशंका किसी को नहीं थी कि रासायनिक उर्वरकों और कीटनाशकों का अंधाधुंध इस्तेमाल न सिर्फ खेतों में, बल्कि खेतों से बाहर मंडियों तक में होने लगेगा। विशेषज्ञों के मुताबिक रासायनिक उर्वरकों और कीटनाशकों का प्रयोग खाद्यान्न की गुणवत्ता के लिए सही नहीं है, लेकिन जिस रफ़्तार से देश की आबादी बढ़ रही है, उसके मद्देनज़र फ़सलों की अधिक पैदावार ज़रूरी थी। समस्या सिर्फ रासायनिक खादों के प्रयोग की ही नहीं है। देश के ज़्यादातर किसान परंपरागत कृषि से दूर होते जा रहे हैं।
दो दशक पहले तक हर किसान के यहाँ गाय, बैल और भैंस खूटों से बँधे मिलते थे। अब इन मवेशियों की जगह ट्रैक्टर-ट्राली ने ले ली है। परिणामस्वरूप गोबर और घूरे की राख से बनी कंपोस्ट खाद खेतों में गिरनी बंद हो गई। पहले चैत-बैसाख में गेहूँ की फ़सल कटने के बाद किसान अपने खेतों में गोबर, राख और पत्तों से बनी जैविक खाद डालते थे। इससे न सिर्फ खेतों की उर्वरा-शक्ति बरकरार रहती थी, बल्कि इससे किसानों को आर्थिक लाभ के अलावा बेहतर गुणवत्ता वाली फसल मिलती थी
ऊपर लिखे हुए गद्यांश को पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए:
प्रश्न 1: भारत में हरित क्रांति का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या था?
(a) देश को खाद्यान्न मामले में आत्मनिर्भर बनाना।
(b) रासायनिक उर्वरकों और कीटनाशकों का उपयोग बढ़ाना।
(c) किसानों को परंपरागत कृषि से दूर करना।
(d) ट्रैक्टर-ट्राली का इस्तेमाल बढ़ाना।
प्रश्न 2: रासायनिक उर्वरकों और कीटनाशकों के अंधाधुंध उपयोग के बारे में विशेषज्ञों की राय क्या है?
(a) ये खाद्यान्न की गुणवत्ता के लिए सही नहीं हैं।
(b) ये फसलों की पैदावार बढ़ाने में बहुत लाभकारी हैं।
(c) ये केवल खेतों में ही उपयोगी हैं, मंडियों में नहीं।
(d) ये परंपरागत कृषि विधियों को बेहतर बनाते हैं।
प्रश्न 3: दो दशक पहले तक हर किसान के यहाँ किन मवेशियों को खूटों से बँधा जाता था?
(a) गाय, बैल और भैंस।
(b) घोड़े और ऊंट।
(c) बकरी और भेड़
(d) केवल गाय और भैंस।
प्रश्न 4: ट्रैक्टर-ट्राली के आगमन के बाद क्या बदलाव आया?
(a) गोबर और घूरे की राख से बनी कंपोस्ट खाद खेतों में गिरनी बंद हो गई।
(b) किसानों ने परंपरागत कृषि विधियों को अपनाना शुरू किया।
(c) खाद्यान्न की गुणवत्ता में सुधार हुआ।
(d) केवल ट्रैक्टर-ट्राली का उपयोग बढ़ा, खाद का नहीं।
प्रश्न 5: परंपरागत कृषि के अनुसार, चैत-बैसाख में क्या किया जाता था?
(a) गोबर, राख और पत्तों से बनी जैविक खाद खेतों में डाली जाती थी।
(b) खेतों को पानी से भरा जाता था।
(c) केवल रासायनिक उर्वरकों का प्रयोग किया जाता था।
(d) ट्रैक्टर-ट्राली द्वारा जुताई की जाती थी।
ऊपर लिखे हुए गद्यांश को पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए:
चंपारण सत्याग्रह के बीच जो लोग गांधी जी के संपर्क में आए वे आगे चलकर देश के निर्माताओं में गिने गए। चंपारण में गांधी जी न सिर्फ सत्य और अहिंसा का सार्वजनिक हितों में प्रयोग कर रहे थे बल्कि हलुवा बनाने से लेकर सिल पर मसाला पीसने और चक्की चलाकर गेहूँ का आटा बनाने की कला भी उन बड़े वकीलों को सिखा रहे थे, जिन्हें गरीबों की अगुवाई की जिम्मेदारी सौंपी जानी थी। अपने इन आध्यात्मिक प्रयोगों के माध्यम से वे देश की गरीब जनता की सेवा करने और उनकी तकदीर बदलने के साथ देश को आजाद कराने के लिए समर्पित व्यक्तियों की एक ऐसी जमात तैयार करना चाह रहे थे जो सत्याग्रह की भट्ठी में उसी तरह तपकर निखरे, जिस तरह भट्ठी में सोना तपकर निखरता और कीमती बनता है।
गांधी जी की मान्यता थी कि एक प्रतिष्ठित वकील और हज़ामत बनाने वाले हज़्ज़ाम में पेशे के लिहाज़ से कोई फ़र्क नहीं, दोनों की हैसियत एक ही हैं। उन्होंने पसीने की कमाई को सबसे अच्छी कमाई माना और शारीरिक श्रम को अहमियत देते हुए उसे उचित प्रतिष्ठा व सम्मान दिया था। कोई काम बड़ा नहीं, कोई काम छोटा नहीं, इस मान्यता को उन्होंने प्राथमिकता दी ताकि साधन शुद्धता की बुनियाद पर एक ठीक समाज खड़ा हो सके। आज़ाद हिंदुस्तान आत्मनिर्भर, स्वावलंबी और आत्म-सम्मानित देश के रूप में विश्व-बिरादरी के बीच अपनी एक खास पहचान बनाए और फिर उसे बरकरार भी रखे।
प्रश्नः 1 गांधी जी की मान्यता थी कि:
(a) हर काम का महत्व अलग-अलग होता है।
(b) एक प्रतिष्ठित वकील और हज़ाम की हैसियत समान है।
(c) केवल उच्च पेशे वाले काम ही महत्वपूर्ण होते हैं।
(d) शारीरिक श्रम की कोई अहमियत नहीं है।
प्रश्न 2: गांधी जी सबसे अच्छी कमाई किसे मानते थे?
(a) धन की कमाई।
(b) शारीरिक श्रम से कमाई।
(c) सांस्कृतिक योगदान।
(d) सामाजिक मान्यता।
प्रश्न 3 : गांधी जी लोगों को शारीरिक श्रम का महत्त्व किस तरह समझा रहे थे?
(a) शारीरिक श्रम को केवल दैवीय कार्य मानते हुए।
(b) श्रम के प्रति उपेक्षा दर्शाते हुए।
(c) खुद भी श्रम में भाग लेकर और अन्य को सिखाकर।
(d) केवल उच्च पेशेवरों को श्रम के महत्व के बारे में बताकर।
प्रश्न 4: शारीरिक श्रम को महत्त्व देने और हर काम को समान समझने के पीछे गांधी जी की दूरदर्शिता क्या थी?
(a) एक समाज में श्रमिकों के महत्व को कम करना।
(b) एक ऐसा समाज बनाना जिसमें हर व्यक्ति को उसकी मेहनत का उचित सम्मान मिले।
(c) उच्च पेशेवरों को समाज में प्रमुख बनाना।
(d) केवल आर्थिक समृद्धि को बढ़ावा देना।
प्रश्न 5: चंपारण सत्याग्रह के दौरान गांधी जी के आध्यात्मिक प्रयोगों का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या था?
(a) गरीबों को धार्मिक शिक्षा देना।
(b) बड़े वकीलों को पिशोरी और खाना बनाना सिखाना।
(c) एक ऐसा समूह तैयार करना जो सत्याग्रह की भट्ठी में तपकर निखरे और देश की गरीब जनता की सेवा कर सके।
(d) केवल स्वयं को आध्यात्मिक रूप से सशक्त करना।
Graph : UP PET Practice Set in English
Directions (1–5):Study the given graph carefully and answer the question that follows
Q-1: The year in which the gross profit is double the net profit
(a) 1997
(b) 1995
(c) 1996
(d) 1994
Explanation: In 1997:
Gross profit = Rs
50lakh Net profit =Rs 25 lakhQ-2 : The percentage of net profit of 1995 as compared to the gross profit in that year is.
(a) 25.5%
(b) 35.5%
(c) 37.5%
(d) 42.5%
Explanation: Required percentage
= $ \frac{15}{40}\times100=37.5$ %
Q-3: The difference of average gross profit and average net profit calculated for four years is
A) 18.75 lakhs Rs B) 19.75 lakhs Rs
C) 20.5 lakhs Rs D) 22.5 lakhs Rs
Explanation: Required difference
= $ \frac14$ (20 +25 +20 + 25 ) lakhs
= $ \frac14\times90$ = 22.5 lakhs Rs
Q-4: The ratio of gross profit to net profit in a year was greatest in the year.
A) 1994
B) 1995
C) 1996
D) 1997
Explanation: Gross profit : net profit
In year 1994 = 3 : 1
Year 1995 = 40 : 15 = 8 : 3
Year 1996 = 45 : 25 = 9 : 5
Year 1997 = 50 : 25 = 2 : 1
Q-5 :For the entire four years as shown, the ratio of total gross profit to total net profit is
A) 13 : 4
B) 11 : 6
C) 11 : 5
D) 9 : 4
Explanation: Required ratio
= 165 : 75 = 11 : 5
Directions (1–5):Study the given graph carefully and answer the question that follows
The bar graph shows the number of players participating in two game in six different school L, M, N, P, Q and R.
Q-1: Total number of players participating in game D from all school is what percentage of the total number of players participating in game E from all school ?
A) 75.3 Percent
B) 142.56 Percent
C) 99.68 Percent
D) 132.78 Percent
Total D =92,78,66,88,54,110 =488
Total E=146,102,82,104,96,118 = 648(488/648)x100=75.3%
Q-2 : What is the percentage increase in the number of players from game D to game E in school M?
A) 22.2%
B) 30.8%
C) 26.9%
D) 28.5%
Solution: Players in game D for M: 78, in game E: 102. Increase = 102−78=24,
Percentage increase: $ \frac{24}{78} \times 100 =30.8 $ %
Q-3 : In which school is the ratio of players in game D to game E the highest?
A) L
B) M
C) P
D) Q
Solution: Calculate the ratios:
L: $ \frac{92}{146} = 0.63$
M: $ \frac{78}{102}= 0.76$
P: $ \frac{88}{104}=0.85$
Q: $ \frac{54}{96} = 0.56$
The ratio of players in game D to game E is highest in school
Q-4: Calculate the average number of players in game E across all schools.
A) 104
B) 108
C) 112
D) 118
Solution: Total number of players in game E: 146+102+82+104+96+118=646.
Average is : $ \frac{646}{6} = 107.67$
Q-5: What percentage of the total number of players in game D are participating from school R?
A) 25%
B) 28.5%
C) 30%
D) 32%
Solution: Total number of players in game D is
= 92+78+66+88+54+110- 468.
Players from school R in game D are 110. Percentage is
$ \frac{110}{468}\times 100= 23.5$%
Table : UP PET Practice Set in English
Directions (1–5): Study the table carefully and answer the questions given below.
Yearly production (In thousands) of scooters in different factories.
| Factory | 1985 | 1986 | 1987 | 1988 | 1989 |
| P | 20 | 15 | 24 | 13 | 17 |
| Q | 16 | 23 | 41 | 20 | 15 |
| R | 14 | 21 | 30 | 16 | 12 |
| S | 25 | 17 | 15 | 12 | 22 |
| T | 40 | 32 | 39 | 41 | 35 |
| Total | 115 | 108 | 149 | 102 | 101 |
Q-1: In which year, the production of scooters of all factories was equal to they early average number of scooters produced during 1985–89 ?
A) 1985
B) 1986
C) 1987
D) 1988
Explanation: Average number of scooters produced per year (in thousands)
= $ \frac {115+108+149+102+101}{5}$
=$ \frac {575}{5}= 115$
Clearly, it was in the year 1985.
Hence, the correct option is (a).
Q-2: Which factory/factories showed a decrease of 25% in the production of scooters in 1989 as compared to 1988?
A) P
B) S
C) Q and R
D) P and T
Explanation: Company Q produced
20 thousands scooters in 1988 and
15 thousands in 1989. Clearly, a decrease
of 25%. Similar is the case with company
R also.
Hence, the correct option is (c)
Q-3: The ratio of the production of scooters by factory P to that by factors T in 1985 is.
A) 2 : 3
B) 1 : 2
C) 3 : 2
D) 2 : 1
Explanation: Required ratio = $ \frac{20}{40}$
= 1 : 2
Q-4 : In which year, the total production of scooters was maximum?
A) 1989
B) 1986
C) 1987
D) 1985
Explanation: It was maximum in the year 1987
Q-5 : In which year the total production of scooters of all factories was 20% of the total production of scooters during 1985–1989?
A) 1988
B) 1985
C) 1986
D) 1989
Explanation: Total production of scooters during 1985 -1989 in thousands.
= 115+108 +149+ 102 + 101 =575
= $ \frac{20\times575}{100}$ =115
It was in the year 1985.
Q-1: The following table represents the population of four different areas and the percentage of males, females, and children among them.
| Area | Population | Males | Females | Children |
| P | 10,000 | 40% | 40% | 20% |
| Q | 20,000 | 30% | 40% | 30% |
| R | 16,000 | 50% | 30% | 20% |
| S | 18,000 | 45% | 35 % | 20% |
Q-1 : What is the total number of males in Area P?
A) 3,000
B) 4,000
C) 5,000
D) 6,000
Solution:
Total population of Area P = 10,000
Percentage of males = 40%
Number of males = $ 10,000\times$ 40% = 4,000
Q-2 : In which area is the number of males equal to the number of children?
A) Area P
B) Area Q
C) Area R
D) Area S
Solution:
correct option is actually Area Q:
Percentage of males = 30%
Percentage of children = 30%
Number of males = 20,000 $ \times$ 30% = 6,000
Number of children = 20,000 $ \times$ 30% = 6,000
Q-3: What is the ratio of females to children in Area R?
A) 3:2
B) 2:1
C) 1:2
D) 4:3
Solution: Total population of Area R = 16,000
Percentage of females = 30%
Percentage of children = 20%
Ratio of females to children = 30:20= 3:2
Q-4 : If the total population of Areas P and R combined is 26,000, what is the total number of children in these two areas?
A) 5,200
B) 5,600
C) 6,000
D) 6,400
Solution: Area P
Total population of Area P = 10,000
Percentage of children in Area P = 20%
Number of children in Area P = 10,000 $ \times$ 20% = 2,000
Area R
Total population of Area R = 16,000
Percentage of children in Area R = 20%
Number of children in Area R = 16,000 $ \times$ 20% = 3,200
Total number of children in both areas = 2,000 + 3,200 = 5,200
Q-5: What is the total number of children in areas P and Q together ?
A) 7000
B) 6000
C) 8000
D) 9000
Calculate the number of children in Area P:
Total population of Area P = 10,000
Percentage of children in Area P = 20%
Number of children in Area P = 10,000 × 20% = 2,000
Calculate the number of children in Area Q:
Total population of Area Q = 20,000
Percentage of children in Area Q = 30%
Number of children in Area Q = 20,000 × 30% = 6,000
Add the number of children from both areas:
Total number of children in Areas P and Q = 2,000 (Area P) + 6,000 (Area Q) = 8,000
Whether you are preparing for Lekhpal, Junior Assistant, Clerk, Forest Guard, Village Development Officer (VDO), or other UPSSSC recruitments, a sWhether you are preparing for Lekhpal, Junior Assistant, Clerk, Forest Guard, Village Development Officer (VDO), or other UPSSSC recruitments, a strong PET score is the first step toward success. Regular practice through mock tests is one of the most effective ways to identify weak areas and improve overall performance.
Why Attempt This Mock Test?
- 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
- Based on the Latest UPSSSC PET Syllabus
- English Medium Questions
- Covers Important Topics from Previous Exams
- Instant Score and Result
- Detailed Answers and Explanations
- Helps Improve Speed and Accuracy
- Free Online Practice Test
Subjects Included
The mock test includes questions from:
- Indian History
- Geography
- Indian Polity
- Economy
- General Science
- Current Affairs
- Mathematics
- Reasoning
- English Language
- General Awareness
Benefits of Regular Practice
Practicing full-length mock tests helps candidates understand the exam pattern, manage time effectively, and develop the confidence required to perform well under exam conditions. By attempting this test, you can evaluate your current preparation level and focus on areas that need improvement.
Start your UPSSSC PET 2026–27 preparation today and take a step closer to securing a government job in Uttar Pradesh.